Phy5645:Problem 4.1 Solution: Difference between revisions

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</math>
</math>


It is now shown that <math>\tilde{U}(a)</math> is unitary:
It is now shown that <math>\tilde{U}(a)</math> is unitary, i.e. <math>\tilde{U}(a)^\dagger = \tilde{U}(a)^{-1}</math>:
 
<math>
\tilde{U}(a)^\dagger =  e^{ (i)^\dagger \frac{a}{\hbar} (\hat{p})^\dagger } = e^{ -i \frac{a}{\hbar} \hat p }
</math>
 
<math>
\begin{align}
 
\Rightarrow \tilde{U}(a)^\dagger \tilde{U}(a) & = e^{ -i \frac{a}{\hbar} \hat p } e^{ i \frac{a}{\hbar} \hat p } \\
 
& = \left [ \sum_{m=0}^\infty \frac{ \left ( -i a \hat p \right )^m }{m!}  \right ] \left [ \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{ \left ( i a \hat p \right )^n }{n!}  \right ]
 
 
\end{align}
</math>

Revision as of 02:37, 15 October 2009

Problem

Prove that there is a unitary operator , which is a function of , such that for some wavefunction , .

Solution

So,

It is now shown that is unitary, i.e. :