Phy5645:Problem 4.1 Solution: Difference between revisions

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(→‎Solution: Proved operator to be unitary.)
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<math>
<math>
\tilde{U}(a)^\dagger =  e^{ (i)^\dagger \frac{a}{\hbar} (\hat{p})^\dagger } = e^{ -i \frac{a}{\hbar} \hat p }
\tilde{U}(a)^\dagger =  e^{ (i)^\dagger \frac{a}{\hbar} (\hat{p})^\dagger } = e^{ -i \frac{a}{\hbar} \hat p } = e^{ i \frac{(-a)}{\hbar} \hat p } = \tilde{U}(-a)
</math>
</math>


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\begin{align}
\begin{align}


\Rightarrow \tilde{U}(a)^\dagger \tilde{U}(a) & = e^{ -i \frac{a}{\hbar} \hat p } e^{ i \frac{a}{\hbar} \hat p } \\
\Rightarrow \tilde{U}(a)^\dagger \tilde{U}(a) \psi(x) & = \tilde{U}(-a) \tilde{U}(a) \psi(x) \\
& = \tilde{U}(-a) \psi(x + a) \\
& = \psi(x + a - a) \\
& = \mathbf{1} \psi(x) \\


& = \left [ \sum_{m=0}^\infty \frac{ \left ( -i a \hat p \right )^m }{m!}  \right ] \left [ \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{ \left ( i a \hat p \right )^n }{n!}  \right ]
\end{align}
</math>
 
<math>
\begin{align}


& \Rightarrow \tilde{U}(a)^\dagger \tilde{U}(a) = \mathbf{1} \\
& \Rightarrow \tilde{U}(a)^\dagger \tilde{U}(a) \tilde{U}(a)^{-1} = \mathbf{1} \tilde{U}(a)^{-1} \\
& \therefore \tilde{U}(a)^\dagger = \tilde{U}(a)^{-1} \\


\end{align}
\end{align}
</math>
</math>

Revision as of 13:58, 19 October 2009

Problem

Prove that there is a unitary operator , which is a function of , such that for some wavefunction , .

Solution

So,

It is now shown that is unitary, i.e. :